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Praxis
Glad you asked

Illustration by Michael Wertz
At what point
did Americans start speaking differently than the British? How did it happen?
Did children suddenly start speaking differently than their parents? We
are assuming that the first Pilgrims had British accents, yes? And for that
matter, how did Southerners gain their drawl, and the Californians theirs?
Kristin Howard ’81, Oakland, CA
The early
settlers from the British Isles arrived here with different accents, depending
on where they originated, and they and the British began to drift further
apart [in accent] as distance kept the groups separate. But we Americans
weren’t the only ones who changed -- British speech changed too. So neither
the Pilgrims nor the English of the period had what we’d call a “British
accent” now neither sounded much like Laurence Olivier.
As for the Southerners, their way of speech owes something to the south
of England (which by the 18th century had lost its Rs) and something, certainly,
to the speech of the African-American slaves who had developed their own
variety of English. Californians don’t have a “drawl,” really, but their
speech is largely a development from the American midland speech of earlier
settlers, which mutated into an accent of its own.
Thanks to Geoffrey Nunberg, linguist and professor at the Berkeley
School of Information
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